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Χάρις (kharis) and χάριν (kharin)…

‍‍28 Elul 5770 - September 06, 2010 By: Dr. Walter Oakley Category: Mesorah of Mark

1 Peter 5:12-14

12 By the hand of Silvanus, (Silas) faithful brother (and scribe) as I present to you this brief (authoritative) account in writing and asking (urge – strengthen – exhort) you to bear witness to the truth of G-d by which means you stand. 13The congregation in Babylon chosen together with you greets you, and Mordechai my son (talmid – scribe). 14 Greet each other with a kiss of love. Shalom to all of you in Messiah (Translation by Dr. Eliyahu ben Avraham (Dr. Walter Oakley)

Greek Text

Διὰ Σιλουανοῦ ὑμῖν τοῦ πιστοῦ ἀδελφοῦ ὡς λογίζομαι δι ὀλίγων ἔγραψα παρακαλῶν καὶ ἐπιμαρτυρῶν ταύτην εἶναι ἀληθῆ χάριν τοῦ θεοῦ εἰς ἣν στῆτε 13Ἀσπάζεται ὑμᾶς ἡ ἐν Βαβυλῶνι συνεκλεκτὴ καὶ Μᾶρκος ὁ υἱός μου 14 ἀσπάσασθε ἀλλήλους ἐν φιλήματι ἀγάπης εἰρήνη ὑμῖν πᾶσιν τοῖς ἐν Χριστῷ

Using the 6th and 7th hermeneutic rules of Hillel I will demonstrate how χάριν (kharin) should be translated in this text.

6. Ka-yoẓe bo mi-maḳom aḥer: Similarity in content to another Scriptural passage.

7. Dabar ha-lamed me-’inyano: Interpretation deduced from the context.

The word χάρις is translated frequently as “grace.” This word actually has more than one definition.

  • Grace or graciousness
  • Favor or favoritism
  • Thanks and gratitude

    However, our text uses χάριν (kharin)
    noun accusative feminine singular common from χάρις.

    This word creates complexities that are difficult to explain. Sources differ on how to translate this word. All agree that the source word is most likely Χάρις (kharis). Conversely, use of χάριν (kharin) forces this word χάριν (kharin) into a different context. I translate it “by which means” based on J.H. Multon and G. Milligan’s definition of the use of χάριν (kharin) as well as contextual, scriptural evidence.

    I cite here an example of the word χάριν (kharin)…

    1 John 3:12 “not as Cain, who was of the evil one and slew his brother. And for what reason did he slay him? Because his deeds were evil, and his brother’s were righteous.”

    1 John 3:12
    οὐ καθὼς Κάϊν ἐκ τοῦ πονηροῦ ἦν καὶ ἔσφαξεν τὸν ἀδελφὸν αὐτοῦ· καὶ χάριν τίνος ἔσφαξεν αὐτόν; ὅτι τὰ ἔργα αὐτοῦ πονηρὰ ἦν τὰ δὲ τοῦ ἀδελφοῦ αὐτοῦ δίκαια.

    In this context, χάριν (kharin) cannot be translated “grace.” Cain does not kill his brother in “grace.” “For what reason” χάριν (kharin) does Cain kill Able?

    Likewise, “for what reason” χάριν (kharin) do we “stand”? We “stand” (Pray) in the truth of G-d. Furthermore, χάριν (kharin) is used only once in the LXX…

    2Ch 7:21
    καὶ ὁ οἶκος οὗτος ὁ ὑψηλός πᾶς ὁ διαπορευόμενος αὐτὸν ἐκστήσεται καὶ ἐρεῖ χάριν τίνος ἐποίησεν κύριος τῇ γῇ ταύτῃ καὶ τῷ οἴκῳ τούτῳ

    2Ch 7:21
    And this House, which was exalted, every passerby will be astounded, and they will say: Why has the L-rd done this to this country and to this Temple?

    The use of χάριν (kharin) is limited to nine other verses in the Nazarene codicil. (Lk. 7:47, Gal. 3:19, Eph. 3:1, 14, 1 Tim. 5:14, Tit. 1:5, 11, 1 Jn. 3:12, Jude 1:16) It is NEVER translated “grace.” Its primary translation is “for this reason.” If it is NEVER translated as “grace,” why would scholars translate it as “grace” here in this passage? I have no answer except that it must serve some ulterior motive such as “grace” as opposed to Torah. Actually, I find here a hermeneutic demanding that the word NOT be translated “grace.” While we always seem to find an exception to the rule, I believe that the appropriate way to translate χάριν (kharin) is “for this reason” or as I have in the context of this verse “by which means.”

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